Medical Interview Questions

 
1.
What are the positional changes in pain noted by patients with pericarditis?
2.
How long does it take for total CPK levels in the blood to return to normal after a myocardial infarction?
3.
What is the kussmal sign?
4.
What is the best most specific and sensitive indicator for a Re-Myocardial Infartion(Post MI)?
5.
Describe the classical signs of mitral stenosis?
6.
What is peripheral resistance?
7.
Who really performed the first open heart surgery, Daniel Hale Williams, or Ludwig Rehn?
8.
What was the surgical method for the first open heart surgery?
9.
What are the most common causes of cardiovascular related syncope?
10.
How often does rupture of the pulmonary artery occur with right heart catheterization?
11.
What is the effect of inspiration on the return of venous blood to the heart?
12.
What are the electocardiogram findings of a Mobitz type II second degree AV block?
13.
How often will the EKG be abnormal in patients having an MI?
14.
Normal JVD is 6-8 cm, what 5 conditions are associated with increased JVD?
15.
What are the reversible causes of pulseless electrical activity?
16.
Which organ is affected in dysentery?
17.
Is the base applied when we make grooves and locks for amalgam retention?
18.
What are the symptoms of TMJ? How are they treated?
19.
How are periodontal disease and Gingivitis are related?
20.
How is gingivitis treated?
21.
What are the treatments for Acne and Rosacea?
22.
How do you treat warts?
23.
At what age should someone go to the dermatologist to get all of her moles checked?
24.
Eczema and psoriasis seem to be very similar skin conditions. Are the treatments the same?
25.
What is serboic dermatitis?
26.
What is the best treatment for resistant pustular-type psoriasis, usually presenting on the soles of feet or palms of hands?
27.
In the case of recurrent painful aphthous ulcers, is there a third-line treatment once topical steroids, carboxymethylcellulose paste and tetracycline mouthwashes have been tried?
28.
If a patient whos either pregnant or has cirrhosis of the liver develops tinea capitis, which oral antifungal agent do you recommend?
29.
Explain What is meant by substrates of enzymatic reactions?
30.
Explain What are the main theoretical models that try to explain the formation of the enzyme-substrate complex?
31.
Explain Which equation gives the relation between specific rate (k) and Temperature?
32.
Explain What is the difference between essential and natural amino acids?
33.
Explain How does the formation of the enzyme-substrate complex explain the reduction of the activation energy of chemical reactions?
34.
Explain What are the compounds used for extraction of Gold and Silver?
35.
Explain the formula for Peral Ash?
36.
Explain What amount of catalyst is consumed in the reaction it catalyzes?
37.
Explain Dolomite is the ore of which element?
38.
Explain What are respectively some remarkable functions of myosin, CD4, albumin, keratin, immunoglobulin, reverse transcriptase, hemoglobin, and insulin?
39.
What are the three types of germ layers that form tissues and organs in animals?
40.
How is the mesoderm (third germ layer) of triploblastic animals formed?
41.
What are the archenteron and the blastopore? What is the stage of the embryonic development in which these structures are formed? What are the destinations of the archenteron and of the blastopore?
42.
What is gastrulation? How during gastrulation are the first two germ layers formed? Which are these germ layers?
43.
After the blastula stage what is the following stage of the embryonic development? How is the passage from blastula to the next stage called?
44.
After the morula stage what is the next stage? What is the morphological feature that defines that stage?
45.
What are the cells produced in the first stage of the embryonic development called?
46.
What is the cell division during the first stage of the embryonic development called? How is this stage characterized?
47.
What are the four initial stages of the embryonic development?
48.
What are the animal pole and the vegetal pole of the vertebrate egg?
49.
What is the function of the vitellus in the vertebrate egg? How are these eggs classified according to the amount of vitellus within them?
50.
What is the cell division process directly related to the embryonic growth?
51.
How are animals classified according to the germ layers present in their embryonic development?
52.
How does the embryo turn from gastrula into neurula? How is the neural tube formed? What is the embryonic origin of the nervous system in vertebrates?
53.
What is notochord? How is this structure formed?
54.
What is coelom? To which structures do coeloms give birth? Are all animals coelomate?
55.
What is the germ layer from which the coeloms originate?
56.
What are pleura, pericardium, and peritoneum?
57.
After the neurula stage and from its ventral portion to the dorsal how can the morphology of the embryo be described?
58.
What are somites?
59.
What are histogenesis and organogenesis?
60.
From which germ layer do the epidermis and the nervous system originate? What are other organs and tissues made from that germ layer?
61.
From which germ layer do blood cells originate? What are other organs and tissues made from that germ layer?
62.
From which germ layer do the liver and the pancreas originate? What are other organs and tissues made from that germ layer?
63.
What are twins? Genetically what are the two types of twins that can be generated?
64.
What is polyembryony?
65.
What are extra embryonic membranes?
66.
What are the extra embryonic membranes present in vertebrates?
67.
Are the extra embryonic membranes the same in all vertebrates?
68.
How is the yolk sac formed? What is the function of the yolk sac?
69.
Which is the extra embryonic membrane whose function is to store nitrogen wastes of the embryo? Is this function present in placental mammalian embryos?
70.
Why can the allantois be considered an adaptation to terrestrial life?
71.
What is the difference between amnion and chorion?
72.
Why can the amnion also be considered an adaptation to terrestrial life?
73.
What is the chorioallantois membrane present in the embryonic development of reptiles and birds? How does this membrane participate in the energetic metabolism of the embryo?
74.
In which type of animals does the placenta exist? What is its main function?
75.
What are the main substances transferred from the mother to the fetus through the placenta and from the fetus to the mother?
76.
Is there exchange of cells between the mother and the fetus through the placenta?
77.
What are the endocrine functions of the placenta?
78.
What is the function of the umbilical cord?
79.
Which inflammatory bowel disease will manifest with deep fissures and fistulas?
80.
When does the serum lipase begin to rise in patients with acute pancreatitis?
81.
In liver disease, what causes spider telangiectasias and palmar erythema?
82.
What is an encapsulated collection of pancreatic fluid with no epithelial cell lining?
83.
Which disorder is characterized by epigastric pain radiating to either quadrant or to the back, epigastric tenderness, nausea and vomiting, diminished bowel sounds secondary to adynamic ileus, fever, and dehydration/shock?
84.
Which disorder is characterized by abnormal liver function tests, a TIBC of 61% and an increased ferritin level?
85.
What is the remnant of omphalomesenteric duct which connects the yolk sac to primitive midgut in the embryo?
86.
Which small bowel obstruction can occur when a large gallstone erodes through the gall bladder and into the duodenum?
87.
What are four abdominal radiographic findings of
diverticulitis?
88.
Is it true that morphine is contraindicated in the treatment of acute pancreatitis because of sphincter of Oddi spasm?
89.
Is some bleeding normal when starting Hormone Replacement Therapy?
90.
What are fibroids?
91.
Should I continue to have a pelvic exam each year if I have had a Hysterectomy?
92.
Can an ovarian cyst be normal?
93.
If I am no longer having my monthly period because of menopause, when should I be worried about new onset vaginal bleeding?
94.
Is there a screening test for ovarian cancer?
95.
Is irregular bleeding common when starting a new birth control pill?
96.
Is it possible to have a polyp in the uterus?
97.
What should I do if I miss a birth control pill?
98.
Is there an ovarian tumor with hair and teeth?
99.
35 year old woman is thought to have a vesico-vaginal fistula. What are the main causes of vesico-vaginal fistulas?
100.
What are the side-effects of magnesium sulphate therapy?
101.
A 14year old woman attends with her mother because she has not started menstruating. Outline your initial assessment?
102.
How is called the small opening of the uterus that sperm would first enter?
103.
In scanning report of my wife at gender column it is written as III, What is the meaning?
104.
35 year second gravida with single umbilical artery and ctev (club foot)?
105.
34 year old woman is found to have a monochorionic twin pregnancy at 12 weeks gestation in her first pregnancy. She requests information on the antenatal risks to her and her fetuses and their management. How would you counsel her?
106.
How would you assess and treat a 52year old woman who complains of heavy prolonged menstrual bleeding?
107.
A 35 year old woman has been listed for hysteroscopy. What are the indications for hysteroscopy in a woman of this age?
108.
What are the role of MR?
109.
Why doctor prescribe antibiotics for viral infection instead of antiviral drugs?
110.
Explain difference between sonication and homozinization?
111.
Which type of data need to file ANDA submission in USA ?
112.
WHAT IS FORCED DEGRADATION STUDY?
HOW TO PERFORM FORCED DEGRADATION ON TABLET SAMPLE OR SUSPENSIONS?
113.
Why 3X samples collected in process validation?
114.
Why potasium is high? when we done the test by edta sample?
115.
If an enteric coated tablet is taken with milk,will it disintegrate in stomach or still it will manage to pass into the intestine and disintegrate in inherent alkaline environment of intestine?
116.
What is mean by stability study?
117.
Why do we choose hplc Or Gas chromatography for a sample analysis?
118.
What are your educational qualifications? How many years of experience do you have in healthcare fields?
119.
What would your core competencies be, when it comes to NHS Jobs?
120.
Have you ever been through an emergency situation? What position did you handle during the emergency situation?
121.
Do you consider yourself to be social? Can you tell us of a time when you used your social skills to help the patients?
122.
Could you tell us of a time when you used your leadership skills to handle a situation?
123.
What is the best aspect that you like about your job?
124.
We have set out one this page a wide range of questions, List of Medicine Interview Questions and Answers.
125.
KNOWLEDGE OF THE MEDICAL SCHOOL Interview Questions
126.
Which is the following is the most appropriate during the orientation phase?
127.
The nurse shows a patient advocate role when?
128.
As a manager, the nurse should?
129.
As a care provider, the nurse should do first?
130.
A Diabetic patient was amputated following an unexpected necrosis on the right leg, he sustained and undergone BKA. He then underwent therapy on how to use his new prosthetic leg. What level of prevention is this?
131.
A female client undergoes yearly mammography. What level of prevention is this?
132.
60 years old post CVA (cardio vascular accident) patient is taking TPA for his disease. What level of prevention is this?
133.
Preparing the client for the termination phase begins?
134.
A helping relationship is a process characterized by-
135.
During the nurse patient interaction, the nurse assesses the ff: to determine the patients coping strategy:
136.
As a counselor, a nurse should perform which of the ff task-
137.
A 16-year-old child is hospitalized, according to Erik Eriksson, what is an appropriate intervention?
138.
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is characterized by-
139.
Which of the following drugs needs a WBC level checked regularly?
140.
Angelo, an 18 year old out of school youth was caught shoplifting in a department store. He has history of being quarrelsome and involving physical fight with his friends. He has been out of jail for the past two years.

Initially, the nurse identifies which of the ff: Nursing diagnosis:
141.
Which of the ff: is not a characteristic of PD?
142.
The most effective treatment modality for persons if anti social PD is
143.
Which of the following is not an example of alteration of perception?
144.
The type of anxiety that leads to personality disorganization is:
145.
A client is admitted to the hospital. Twelve hours later the nurse observes hand tremors, hyperexicitability, tachycardia, diaphoresis, and hypertension. The nurse suspects alcohol withdrawal. The nurse should ask the client:
146.
Client with a history of schizophrenia has been admitted for suicidal ideation. The client states "God is telling me to kill myself right now." The nurses best response is:
147.
In assessing a clients suicide potential, which statement by the client would give the nurse the highest cause for concern?
148.
A client with paranoid schizophrenia has persecutory delusions and auditory hallucinations and is extremely agitated. He has been given a PRN dose of Thorazine IM. Which of the following would indicate to the nurse that the medication is having the desired effect?
149.
A client who was wandering aimlessly around the streets acting inappropriately and appeared disheveled and admitted to a psychiatric unit and is experiencing auditory and visual hallucinations. The nurse would develop a plan of care based on:
150.
A decision is made to discharge a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder. Of the following abilities the client has demonstrated, the one that probably most influenced the decision not to hospitalize him is his ability to:
151.
A client is admitted to the inpatient psychiatric unit. He is unshaven, has body odor, and has spots on his shirt and pants. He moves slowly, gazes at the floor, and has a flat affect. The nurses highest priority in assessing the client on admission would be to ask him:
152.
The nurse should know that the normal therapeutic level of lithium is
153.
If a Patient complaints about vomiting, diarrhea, and restlessness after taking lithane, then the nurses initial intervention is:
154.
The client is taking Tofranil. The nurse should closely monitor the patient:
155.
A client was hospitalized with major depression with suicidal ideation for 1 week. He is taking venlafaxine (Effexor), 75 mg three times a day, and is planning to return to work. The nurse asks the client if he is experiencing thoughts of self-harm. The client responds, "I hardly think about it anymore and wouldn't do anything to hurt myself." The nurse judges:
156.
The client is taking sertraline (Zoloft), 50 mg q AM. The nurse includes which of the following in the teaching plan about Zoloft.
157.
After 3 days of taking haloperidol, the client shows an inability to sit still, is restless and fidgety, and paces around the unit. Of the following extrapyramidal adverse reactions, the client is showing signs:
158.
When caring for a client receiving haloperidol (Haldol), the nurse would assess for which of the following-
159.
A client is brought to the hospitals emergency room by a friend, who states, "I guess he had some bad junk (heroin) today." In assessing the client, the nurse would likely find which of the following symptoms-
160.
The client has been taking the monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) phenelzine (Nardil), 10 mg bid. The physician orders a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), paroxetine (Paxil), 20 mg given every morning. The nurse:
161.
Which of the following client a statement about clozapine (Clozaril) indicates that the client needs additional teaching?
162.
A client has been taking lithium carbonate (Lithane) for hyperactivity, as prescribed by his physician. While the client is taking this drug, the nurse should ensure that he has an adequate intake of-
163.
The client has been taking clomipramine (Anafranil) for his obsessive-compulsive disorder. He tells the nurse, "I am not really better, and I have been taking the medication faithfully for the past 3 days just like it says on this prescription bottle." Which of the following actions would the nurse do first?
164.
The nurse judges correctly that a client is experiencing an adverse effect from amitriptyline hydrochloride (Elavil) when the client demonstrates:
165.
Which of the following health status assessments must be completed before the client starts taking imipramine (Tofranil)?
166.
A client comes to the outpatient mental health clinic 2 days after being discharged from the hospital. The client was given a 1-week supply of clozapine (Clozaril). The nurse reviews information about clozapine with the client. Which client statement indicates an accurate understanding of the nurses teaching about this medication?
167.
The client is taking risperidone (Risperdal) to treat the positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. Which of the following negative symptoms will improve?
168.
The nurse would teach which food to avoid, if the client taking tranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate), because of its high tyramine content?
169.
Which of the following clinical manifestations would alert the nurse to lithium toxicity?
170.
The client with depression has been hospitalized for 3 days on the psychiatric unit. This is the second hospitalization during the past year. The physician orders a different drug, tranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate), when the client does not respond positively to a tricyclic antidepressant. Which of the following reactions should the client is cautioned about if her diet includes foods containing tryaminetyramine?
171.
After the nurse has taught the client who is being discharged on lithium (Eskalith) about the drug, which of the following client statements would indicate that the teaching has been successful.
172.
A nurse is caring for a client with Parkinsons disease who has been taking carbidopa/levodopa (Sinemet) for a year. Which of the following adverse reactions will the nurse monitor the client?
173.
A client is taking fluoxetine hydrochloride (Prozac) for treatment of depression. The client asks the nurse when the maximum therapeutic response occurs. The nurses best response is that the maximum therapeutic response for fluoxetine hydrochloride may occur in the:
174.
Are tablet excipients, binders or fillers good or bad?
175.
What do tablet binders and fillers do?
176.
What are tablet excipients?
177.
Why are tablet excipients necessary?
178.
Are capsules better than tablets?
179.
What is stearic acid and from what is it derived?
180.
Why is stearic acid used in tablet manufacturing?
181.
Does stearic acid interfere with the absorption of vitamins and minerals?
182.
What does bioavailability mean?
183.
Why do some supplements cost more than others that look like they contain the same ingredients?
184.
Is it OK to take vitamins after their expiration date?
185.
How long do vitamins last?
186.
Why do vitamin supplements have expiration dates?
187.
What are slow or time released tablets?
188.
When should I stop taking the vitamins recommended by my healthcare provider?
189.
Should I take the vitamins in the morning or at night?
190.
How are herbs different from drugs?
191.
Can I hurt myself by overdosing on vitamins?
192.
Are herbs safe to take with prescription drugs?
193.
Why would herbs be supplied in combination blends?
194.
What makes urine change color when I take a multivitamin?
195.
Can I still take vitamins if I have a cold or flu?
196.
Can I still take vitamins if I am involved with a detoxification program?
197.
Should I take extra antioxidants if I am working out?
198.
Will I destroy any of the properties in a tablet if I crush it?
199.
What if I find a tablet in my stool?
200.
When should a child take vitamins?
201.
Should an infant take Acidophilus? I have heard they should only take Bifidus?
202.
What vitamins, minerals or herbs might be recommended for anxiety?
203.
I have heard calcium can interfere with prescription drugs?
204.
I have heard that human strains of probiotics are the best. Is that true?
205.
What are colloidal minerals?
206.
What is myo-inositol, and how does it differ from regular inositol?
207.
What is MSM?
208.
What is the glycemic index?
209.
What makes amino acid chelated minerals better than other types of minerals?
210.
What does porcine mean?
211.
Where is the best source of bovine raw glandulars?
212.
What is BSE and how can I prevent exposure to it?
213.
The following are true about cerebrospinal fluid:
214.
True statement about the facial nerve includes:
215.
The optic chiasm:
216.
The cells of the retinal pigment epithelium:
217.
With regard to the lacrimal drainage system:
218.
The following are true about lacrimal gland:
219.
The globe:
220.
The vitreous:
221.
The cornea:
222.
The nasociliary nerve supplies:
223.
The ciliary ganglion:
224.
The inferior rectus muscle:
225.
In the eyelids:
226.
The parotid gland:
227.
In the head and neck:
228.
In the development of the eye:
229.
The following structures are of ectodermal origin:
230.
The hyaloid artery:
231.
With respect to lens development:
232.
The following structures arise from the first pharyngeal arch:
233.
Glucagon:
234.
Vergence movement:
235.
During accommodation for near:
236.
In binocular vision:
237.
The following are true about entopic phenomenon:
238.
The retinal-pigment epithelium cells are
239.
The intraocular pressure can fluctuate:
240.
The tear film:
241.
The human lens:
242.
True statement about dark adaptation includes:
243.
During phototransduction:
244.
With regard to the blood retina barrier:
245.
True statements about the aqueous humour:
246.
True statements about ERG include:
247.
True statements about EOG include:
248.
Stretch reflex:
249.
Glycocylated haemoglobin:
250.
With regard to the autonomic nervous system:
251.
The following are true about blood coagulation:
252.
In the inner ear
253.
Regarding interferon:
254.
Gram-negative rods that are known to cause ocular diseases include:
255.
The following are true:
256.
Endotoxins:
257.
The following virus is associated with human cancer:
258.
Following an acute inflammation, the following may occur:
259.
Acetazolamide causes the following:
260.
The effects of topically applied anticholinesterase on the eye include:
261.
Impaired accommodation occurs with
262.
True statements about chloroquine include:
263.
At the adrenergic synapse, the concentration of adrenaline in synaptic cleft:
264.
True statements about the nucleic acid include:
265.
In allergic reaction:
266.
With regard to immunoglobulin A:
267.
The following are true about the viruses:
268.
Recognized virulence factors in bacteria include:
269.
The following enzymes on the left are responsible for the synthesis of the neurotransmitters on the right:
270.
The following are true about the DNA in mitochondria:
271.
True statements about chromosome include:
272.
The following are true (Ophthalmology):
273.
How do you think you would get a Physician to switch to your drug?
274.
How would you like your ideal sales manager to be - to get the best out of you?
275.
If given a territory and a list of physicians to call on, how would you go about it?
276.
What is the most challenging aspect of a pharmaceutical representative?
277.
How do you perceive a pharmaceutical representatives typical workday?
278.
How do you think the company would help you the best?
279.
What is your interaction level with your previous supervisor? What did he do right and what did he do wrong, according to you?
280.
How do you perceive a typical day for pharmaceutical sales representative?
281.
What is the most challenging aspect of being a pharmaceutical sales person?
282.
I am 40-something years old. Am I too old to land a job as a pharmaceutical sales representative?
283.
I think I want to be a pharmaceutical sales representative, but how can I know for sure?
284.
Is a scientific degree required for entry into pharmaceutical sales? What about prior sales experience?
285.
How long should I expect my job search to last?
286.
I am willing to relocate for the right pharmaceutical sales job. Will this help me in my job search?
287.
Will a DWI hurt my chances of being hired as a pharmaceutical rep?
288.
I have bad credit, will this hurt my chances?
289.
How necessary is it to have a 4-year degree?
290.
Will an MBA or other advanced degree improve my chances of being hired as a pharmaceutical sales rep?
291.
What are the pros and cons of working with a recruiter?
292.
How do I shop for a professional resume writer?
293.
How important is the resume in landing a pharmaceutical sales job?
294.
What are the essentials that should appear on my resume?
295.
What about a cover letter?
296.
What is the best way to land a job in pharmaceutical sales?
297.
Why do the drug companies give so many interviews? Why does it take so long from the first interview until an offer is made?
298.
What is a typical day for a pharmaceutical sales representative?
299.
If I am hired, what kind of training can I expect?
300.
Do Reps really make large bonuses?
How many products does a rep carry; how do you get paid bonus on them?
301.
What are some of the things that you do not like about being a pharmaceutical sales representative?
302.
What is the hardest thing about being a pharmaceutical sales representative?
303.
If I am hired, and I have poor sales, will I be fired?
304.
I am lucky enough to have more than one job offer. How do I decide?
305.
When the economy does a downturn, what is the job market like for pharmaceutical sales reps?
306.
How many sales calls are you required to make each day?
307.
What is a contract sales company?
308.
Should I accept a contract sales position if my real goal is to work directly for a drug company?
309.
What is a Job-Fair? How useful are they?
310.
I have tried to network, by collecting business cards of current pharmaceutical sales representatives, but none of the doctors or pharmacists in my town will give me any. What do I do next?
311.
I have been on several interviews but received no offers. What could I be doing wrong?
312.
What is a ride-along?
What is proper etiquette for a ride-along?
313.
What should I bring to an interview?
314.
What are the pros and cons of working at a small pharmaceutical company versus one of the biggies?
315.
I am in college. What can I do to enhance my odds of being hired as a pharmaceutical rep?
316.
Explain Do you know how the dose for children is being estimated based on preclinical data?
317.
Explain All of the following agents are beta receptor agonists EXCEPT:
Epinephrine
Isoproterenol
Methoxamine
Dobutamine?
318.
Explain Which of the following barbiturates is an ultra-short-acting drug?

Secobarbital
Amobarbital
Thiopental
Phenobarbital?
319.
Explain DOC for cisplatin induced vomitting:

metaclopramide
domperidone
ondansetron
prochlorperazine?
320.
Explain Ciprofloxacin act by

Inhibiting protein synthesis
Inhibiting DNA function
Inhibiting cell wall synthesis
Inhibiting glycolysis?
321.
Indicate the irreversible alfa receptor antagonist:

Tolazoline
Labetalol
Prazosin
Phenoxybenzamine
322.
MOA of moricizine:

prolongs APD
shortens APD
no change in APD
calcium channel blecker
323.
Explain which of the following antitubercular drug contraindicated in pragnancy.

INH
ethambutol
rifampicin
streptomycin
324.
Explain Hypnotic drugs are used to treat:

Psychosis
Sleep disorders
Narcolepsy
Parkinsonian disorders
325.
Indicate a beta receptor antagonist, which has very long duration of action:

Metoprolol
Propranolol
Nadolol
Pindolol
326.
Explain Which of the following is not used in
enterococcal infection?

Vancomycin
Linezolide
Teichoplanin
Cephalexin
327.
Explain Oral contraception failure can occur with A/E:

ampicillin
phenytoin
rifampicin
mebendazole
328.
Explain Which of the following benzodiazepines is used mainly for hypnosis?

Clonozepam
Lorazepam
Flurazepam
Midazolam
329.
Explain Which of the following is an
antifungal


Flucytosin
Cytosine arabinoside
5 fluourasil
Procarbazine
330.
Explain the hypnotic drugs induce:

Increase the duration of REM sleep
Decrease the duration of REM sleep
Do not alter the duration of REM sleep
Increase the duration of slow wave sleep
331.
Explain indirect-acting adrenoreceptor blocking drug:

Tolazoline
Reserpine
Carvedilol
Prazosin
332.
Explain Flumazenil blocks the actions of:

Phenobarbital
Morphine
Zolpidem
Ethanol
333.
Explain Which of the following hypnotic agents is absorbed slowly?

Phenobarbital
Flurazepam
Triazolam
Temazepam
334.
Explain with an example of haemopoietic growth factor is

platelet derived growth factor
epidermal growth factor
iron dextran
erythropoietin
335.
Explain Dose of acetaminophen in children

5-10mg/kg/day
5-10mg/kg/dose
10-15mg/kg/day
10-15mg/kg/dose
336.
Explain Which type of immunoglobulin level will increase when an individual is exposed to a parasite?
337.
Explain what are the role of MR?
338.
ONLINE TRAINING IN ORACLE CLINICAL 4.6 (Clinical Data Management) and SAS -SDTM mapping?
339.
DEFINITION OF STABILITY INDICATING METHOD?
340.
Explain difference b/w sonication and homozinization?
341.
What is the major definition and difference between uniformity of content and content uniformity as official test for all tablets?
342.
What is the definition of Pka?
343.
What is eCTD? Difference between CTD & eCTD? How it will be prepared? Need of any Software?
344.
What will be in case stability sample Which have batch but distribute in three country. In tath case< we can put the sample for all country, whenevr all have same temp(Zone)?
345.
What the procedure followed in pharmacokinetic study of drug in plasma?
346.
What is streptococcus and what is the best drug for it?
347.
What is the Ph of blood?
348.
In Dry powder inhalation Andersen casacde impacor for FPF performing in that we adjusting 60LPM/MIN and time 4second, why? Explain?
349.
Explain muscles and their functions in the human body?
350.
What is cp rehabilitation?
351.
What are the examples of isometric exercises?
352.
How to get full range of movement for PA shoulder with full restricted movement?
353.
How does the respiratory system in man work?
354.
Why do we need to breathe?
355.
How do you breathe?
356.
So, it all starts at the nose?
357.
What do these sacs do?
358.
How does this exchange work?
359.
But what happens to the carbon dioxide?
360.
What is The Nostril?
361.
What is Pharynx?
362.
What is The Larynx and Vocal Cords?
363.
What is Trachea?
364.
What is Bronchi?
365.
What is Lungs?
366.
What is Write a short note on the human skin. Describe its functions?
367.
The most important functions of the skin are?
368.
Describe the functions of joints and human skeleton?
369.
Explain Ball and socket joint?
370.
Explain Gliding joint?
371.
Describe a human skeleton?
372.
Explain What results can I expect from this cosmetic surgery?
373.
How do we select a surgeon?
374.
The client is taking Tofranil. The nurse should closely monitor the patient:
a. Hypertension
b. Hypothermia
c. Increase Intra Ocular Pressure
d. Increase Intra Cranial Pressure
375.
The nurse should know that the normal therapeutic level of lithium is
A. .6 to 1.2 meq/L
B. 6 to 12 meq/L
C. .6 to .12 cc/ml
D. .6 to .12 cc3/L
376.
Reoperation rates have been 20% for the past 15-20 years in breast augmentation. Is this still currently true?
377.
What is a Cataract?
378.
Explain What Are Intraocular Lens Implants (IOL)?
379.
Should I spay or neuter my pet?
380.
How old should my pet be before spaying or neutering is performed?
381.
If I spay or neuter my pet will his or her behavior change?
382.
How big will my dog get?
383.
How do I know when my animal is in pain?
384.
When do I start vaccinating my pet and which vaccines are needed?
385.
How do I know when my pet has a problem serious enough to justify bringing him to see the doctor?
386.
Is there any medication I can give to make my pet feel better without bringing him in for an examination?
387.
How much should I feed my pet?
388.
When can I walk my puppy in the park?
389.
Is there a cheap place to take my pet (for health care)?
390.
How can I tell if my pet is in heat and how long will it last?
391.
How old do puppies and kittens have to be before taking them away from their mom?
392.
Will my pet miss her baby?
393.
What is a "gene expression signature" for a tumor?
394.
What are the benefits of high-throughput expression analysis in molecular biological investigations?
395.
To what 2 aspects of a usability assessment should the word "representative" apply?
396.
Dr Jones is a pathologist who has recently developed a virtual microscope program for teenagers to use while they are hospitalized. He thinks that teens might use this program to learn more about their illness and the role that pathology plays in the hospital. He has heard that usability is important, so he asks a few of his colleagues to try the program out in their free time and to e-mail their comments to him. Describe 3 specific things that Dr Jones should have done differently in order; to more appropriately assess the usability of his program.
397.
There are about 40 000 human genes and ESTs (expressed sequence tags) available on the Affymetrix Gene Chips for gene expression. Make some reasonable assumptions and estimate, for a normal organ, the number of genes that will appear to be expressed significantly greater than or less than the population norm (95% confidence interval).
398.
In ionizing radiation, cells in G1 phase of the cell cycle are most sensitive?
399.
In ionizing radiation, mitosis does not occur in irradiated cells?
400.
In ionizing radiation, cells experiencing hypoxia are vulnerable to radiation damage?
401.
In ionizing radiation granulation tissue, formation is delayed in wounds, which have been radiated?
402.
In ionizing radiation, undifferentiated tumors are usually more sensitive to radiation than differentiated tumors.
403.
Early suture removal does not affect the granulomatous response.
404.
Monocytes clean the debris left by phagocytes.
405.
The epidermal and dermal epithelia grow downwards along the suture track.
406.
Fibroblasts have a contractile function, which helps to produce a small scar.
407.
The wound site becomes vascular as time passes.
408.
Gangrene refers to tissue necrosis with or without infection.
409.
Acute inflammation usually occurs around necrotic tissues.
410.
Apoptosis does not usually cause inflammation.
411.
Autolytic changes in the nucleus are pathognomonic of necrosis.
412.
The blood vessels surrounding an acutely inflamed site usually show progressive vasodilatation from the time of injury.
413.
With regard to cell growth, ionizing radiation can cause atrophy.
414.
With regard to cell growth, hypocalcaemia can lead to enlargement of the parathyroid gland.
415.
With regard to cell growth, the main stimulus for hypertrophy is hormonal
416.
With regard to cell growth, in metaplasia, there is a change of a type of differentiated cell to a type of undifferentiated cell
417.
With regard to cell growth, achondroplasia does not affect membranous bone
418.
During wound healing, the inflammation is greater for catgut than nylon
419.
During wound healing, with absorbable suture, the wound strength decreases from the time of suturing.
420.
During wound healing, in scurvy the wound is weak due to increased activity of collagenase.
421.
During wound healing, in infected wound collagen lysis is increase.
422.
During wound healing, during collagen synthesis, lysine and proline are directly incorporated into the collagen molecules.
423.
Atherosclerosis occurs in the retinal artery.
424.
In atherosclerosis, foamy macrophages are seen in type I plaque.
425.
In atherosclerosis, thinning of the intima is a feature.
426.
In atherosclerosis, proliferation of smooth muscle cells in the intima is typical.
427.
In atherosclerosis, raised HDL is associated with atherosclerosis.
428.
Protein C deficiency may cause central retinal vein occlusion in a young patient.
429.
Excess protein S may cause central retinal vein occlusion in a young patient.
430.
Antithrombin III deficiency may cause central retinal vein occlusion in a young patient.
431.
Atrial fibrillation may cause central retinal vein occlusion in a young patient.
432.
Factor V Leiden mutation may cause central retinal vein occlusion in a young patient.
433.
In cerebral infarction, the area of infarct tends to be wedge-shaped.
434.
Cerebral infarction can result from thrombosis of the external carotid artery disease.
435.
In cerebral infarction, coagulative necrosis occurs in the brain tissue.
436.
In cerebral infarction, cortical blindness can result from infarction of the anterior cerebral artery.
437.
In cerebral infarction, the necrotic tissue is eventually replaced by Schwann cells.
438.
Phthsical eye can give rise to metastatic calcification.
439.
Sarcoidosis can give rise to metastatic calcification.
440.
Renal failure can give rise to metastatic calcification.
441.
Pulmonary tuberculosis can give rise to metastatic calcification.
442.
Multiple myeloma can give rise to metastatic calcification.
443.
In the presence of inflammation, platelets are raised.
444.
In the presence of inflammation, ferritins are raised.
445.
In the presence of inflammation, caeruloplasmin are raised.
446.
In the presence of inflammation, fibrinogens are raised.
447.
In the presence of inflammation, complement proteins are raised.
448.
Hyperplasia results in increased cell size.
449.
Hyperplasia results in increased cell numbers.
450.
Hyperplasia occurs in corneal endothelium.
451.
Hyperplasia occurs in retinal pigment epithelium.
452.
Hyperplasia occurs in myocardium.
453.
Amyloid occurs in chronic inflammatory disorders.
454.
Amyloid occurs in medullary carcinoma of the thyroid.
455.
Amyloid is a basophilic substance, which can be stained with Congo red.
456.
Amyloid weakens the walls of blood vessels.
457.
Amyloid causes renal failure.
458.
Hamartoma is usually present at birth.
459.
Hamartoma contains cells from all three germ layers.
460.
Hamartoma does not predispose to malignancy.
461.
Hamartoma contains metaplastic cell types.
462.
Aadenoma sebaceum seen in tuberous sclerosis is a type of hamartoma.
463.
Solar keratosis predisposes the squamous cell carcinoma.
464.
Bowens disease predisposes the squamous cell carcinoma.
465.
Chronic eczema predisposes the squamous cell carcinoma.
466.
Chronic ulceration predisposes the squamous cell carcinoma.
467.
Keratoacanthoma predispose the squamous cell carcinoma.
468.
In sickle cell disease, the disorder is a single gene disorder.
469.
In sickle cell disease, carrier has normal blood test.
470.
In sickle cell disease, the abnormality involves the alpha chain of the globin molecule.
471.
In sickle cell disease, there is absence of HbA.
472.
In sickle cell disease, sickle cell crisis does not affect carrier of the disease.
473.
Bowens disease causes increased risk of skin malignancy.
474.
Solar keratosis causes increased risk of skin malignancy.
475.
Aacanthosis nigricans causes increased risk of skin malignancy.
476.
Squamous papilloma causes increased risk of skin malignancy.
477.
Keratoacanthoma causes increased risk of skin malignancy.
478.
Keratoacanthoma is also called molluscum sebaceum.
479.
Keratoacanthoma usually remits spontaneously without leaving scar.
480.
Keratoacanthoma is caused by a poxvirus.
481.
In Keratoacanthoma, central necrosis is uncommon.
482.
Keratoacanthoma is histologically difficult to distinguish from squamous cell carcinoma.
483.
Abnormalities of blood clotting occur in patients taking brufen.
484.
Abnormalities of blood clotting occur in thalassaemia.
485.
Abnormalities of blood clotting occur in sickle cell disease?
486.
Abnormalities of blood clotting occur in Christmas disease?
487.
Abnormalities of blood clotting occur in von Willebrands disease.
488.
Berry aneurysm is most often found in the circle of Willis.
489.
Berry aneurysms result from atheroma.
490.
Berry aneurysms are associated with diabetes mellitus.
491.
Berry aneurysms are associated with polycystic renal disease.
492.
In corneal transplantation in the UK, whole eye is kept in the culture medium in the eye bank.
493.
In corneal transplantation in the UK, the cornea is kept at sub-zero temperature in the bank.
494.
In corneal transplantation in the UK, donor eyes older than 65 years of age are rejected.
495.
In corneal transplantation in the UK, specular microscopy is used to count the number of endothelial cells.
496.
In corneal transplantation in the UK, HLA matching is routinely carried out before use.
497.
Squamous cell carcinoma is a commoner malignant skin tumor than basal cell carcinoma.
498.
Squamous cell carcinoma only occurs in the skin.
499.
Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common skin tumor seen in transplant patient.
500.
In Squamous cell carcinoma, metastasis is usually to the regional lymph nodes.
501.
In Squamous cell carcinoma, the tumours typically have everted edges.
502.
Sebaceous cyst arises in the dermis.
503.
In Sebaceous cyst, central punctum is a common feature
504.
In Sebaceous cyst, scalp is a common location.
505.
Sebaceous cyst is firmly adheres to the skin.
506.
Sebaceous cyst contains mucopolysaccharides.
507.
If dermoid cyst found in the orbital region is usually located in the medial angle of the eye.
508.
Dermoid cyst is lined by squamous epithelium.
509.
In Dermoid, cyst hair may be found in the cyst.
510.
In most cases dermoid cyst are congenital.
511.
In Dermoid, cyst rupture of the cyst is associated with foreign body type inflammation.
512.
A true aneurysm is covered by all three layers of the vessel.
513.
Dissecting aneurysm results from destruction of the vessel media layer.
514.
Hypertension is associated with formation of true aneurysm.
515.
Berry aneurysm is associated with hypercholesterolaemia.
516.
An internal carotid aneurysm in the cavernous sinus can give rise to ipsilateral miosis.
517.
Malignant melanoma is commoner in females than males.
518.
In malignant melanoma, amelanotic type is more aggressive than pigmented type.
519.
In malignant melanoma, malignant transformation in common moles is about 1:10,000.
520.
In malignant melanoma, staging is according to the size of the tumor.
521.
Malignant melanoma is found exclusively in the skin.
522.
Phagocytosis microorganisms are killed by hydrogen peroxide.
523.
Phagocytosis microorganisms are killed by lysozyme.
524.
Phagocytosis microorganisms are killed by lymphokines.
525.
Phagocytosis microorganisms are killed by complement system.
526.
Phagocytosis microorganisms are killed by IgG.
527.
Collagens are produced in the endoplasmic reticulum of the fibroblasts.
528.
Collagens are secreted into the extracellular space as tropocollagen.
529.
The total amount of collagen in a wound reaches normal level within 4 weeks.
530.
Collagens synthesis is impaired in the presence of glucocortisoids.
531.
Collagens production is impaired in vitamin C deficiency.
532.
Anaphylaxis occurs in 24 hours after the initial stimulus.
533.
Anaphylaxis causes eosinophilia.
534.
Anaphylaxis causes degranulation of basophils and mast cells.
535.
Anaphylaxis is produced by Ig E antibody.
536.
Anaphylaxis causes urticaria.
537.
Necrosis is a feature in actinomycosis.
538.
Necrosis is a feature in syphilis.
539.
Necrosis is a feature in sarcoidosis.
540.
Necrosis is a feature in tuberculosis.
541.
Necrosis is a feature in leprosy.
542.
Amyloid reacts with the Congo red stains.
543.
Amyloid reacts with the thioflavine T stains.
544.
Amyloid reacts with the methyl violet stains.
545.
Amyloid reacts with the alcian blue stains.
546.
Amyloid reacts with the Prussian blue stains.
547.
Outcomes research is often limited in the conclusions that can be drawn because of limitations in the data sources used for the studies. What are the most common data sources and what are their main limitations?
548.
Define "association rules" and describe their use in exploratory data mining.
549.
What advantage does a pathologist have over investigators in most other fields in carrying out outcomes or data-mining studies?
550.
What are process measures in outcomes research and why are they sometimes used in place of actual outcomes data?
551.
Describe the main difference between the hypothesis-testing and hypothesis-generating approaches to data mining.
552.
What is an "entity-relationship" diagram useful for, state briefly?
553.
Most of the artificial intelligence systems we discussed rely on some kind of knowledge representation, with the notable exception of neural networks. Where is the "knowledge" in a neural network stored?
554.
How are neural networks different than Bayesian belief networks along the following dimensions:
(1) inspect ability of knowledge,
(2) need for probabilities acquired from "domain" experts,
(3) need for data to train the system, and
(4) ability of the system to make classifications based on input data. (Note: You may find it helpful to make a 2 4 table and include a short phrase or two in each cell.)
555.
What is the Arden syntax?
556.
You are working with an intensive care unit (ICU) attending physician on a project to see if you can predict readmission for patients with pancreatitis. You have access to a large database of ICU data (such as cardiac catheter values, vital signs, and respiratory parameters), as well as all of the data that can be gleaned from the LIS. There are approximately 800 measurements of various types for each of 4000 patients. You do not really have any specific ideas about what values would be most predictive; in fact, you think it is likely that the predictors are highly complex combinations of factors. Which of the 3 types of artificial intelligence systems would be most appropriate for this problem, and why?
557.
Rule-based systems underlie most clinical event monitors (programs that detect important clinical events and notify appropriate medical personnel). Often these systems work in conjunction with data from the clinical pathology LIS. What aspects of clinical pathology make a rule-based system a reasonable approach?
558.
Artificial intelligence and data-mining systems often use "training data sets" and "test data sets." Define these terms and describe briefly how these data sets are used.
559.
What are the positional changes in pain noted by patients with pericarditis?
560.
How long does it take for total CPK levels in the blood to return to normal after a myocardial infarction?
561.
What is the kussmal sign?
562.
What is the best most specific and sensitive indicator for a Re-Myocardial Infartion(Post MI)?
563.
Describe the classical signs of mitral stenosis?
564.
What is peripheral resistance?
565.
Who really performed the first open heart surgery, Daniel Hale Williams, or Ludwig Rehn?
566.
What was the surgical method for the first open heart surgery?
567.
What are the most common causes of cardiovascular related syncope?
568.
How often does rupture of the pulmonary artery occur with right heart catheterization?
569.
What is the effect of inspiration on the return of venous blood to the heart?
570.
What are the electocardiogram findings of a Mobitz type II second degree AV block?
571.
How often will the EKG be abnormal in patients having an MI?
572.
Normal JVD is 6-8 cm, what 5 conditions are associated with increased JVD?
573.
What are the reversible causes of pulseless electrical activity?
574.
Which organ is affected in dysentery?
575.
Is the base applied when we make grooves and locks for amalgam retention?
576.
What are the symptoms of TMJ? How are they treated?
577.
How are periodontal disease and Gingivitis are related?
578.
How is gingivitis treated?
579.
What are the treatments for Acne and Rosacea?
580.
How do you treat warts?
581.
At what age should someone go to the dermatologist to get all of her moles checked?
582.
Eczema and psoriasis seem to be very similar skin conditions. Are the treatments the same?
583.
What is serboic dermatitis?
584.
What is the best treatment for resistant pustular-type psoriasis, usually presenting on the soles of feet or palms of hands?
585.
In the case of recurrent painful aphthous ulcers, is there a third-line treatment once topical steroids, carboxymethylcellulose paste and tetracycline mouthwashes have been tried?
586.
If a patient whos either pregnant or has cirrhosis of the liver develops tinea capitis, which oral antifungal agent do you recommend?
587.
Explain What is meant by substrates of enzymatic reactions?
588.
Explain What are the main theoretical models that try to explain the formation of the enzyme-substrate complex?
589.
Explain Which equation gives the relation between specific rate (k) and Temperature?
590.
Explain What is the difference between essential and natural amino acids?
591.
Explain How does the formation of the enzyme-substrate complex explain the reduction of the activation energy of chemical reactions?
592.
Explain What are the compounds used for extraction of Gold and Silver?
593.
Explain the formula for Peral Ash?
594.
Explain What amount of catalyst is consumed in the reaction it catalyzes?
595.
Explain Dolomite is the ore of which element?
596.
Explain What are respectively some remarkable functions of myosin, CD4, albumin, keratin, immunoglobulin, reverse transcriptase, hemoglobin, and insulin?
597.
What are the three types of germ layers that form tissues and organs in animals?
598.
How is the mesoderm (third germ layer) of triploblastic animals formed?
599.
What are the archenteron and the blastopore? What is the stage of the embryonic development in which these structures are formed? What are the destinations of the archenteron and of the blastopore?
600.
What is gastrulation? How during gastrulation are the first two germ layers formed? Which are these germ layers?
601.
After the blastula stage what is the following stage of the embryonic development? How is the passage from blastula to the next stage called?
602.
After the morula stage what is the next stage? What is the morphological feature that defines that stage?
603.
What are the cells produced in the first stage of the embryonic development called?
604.
What is the cell division during the first stage of the embryonic development called? How is this stage characterized?
605.
What are the four initial stages of the embryonic development?
606.
What are the animal pole and the vegetal pole of the vertebrate egg?
607.
What is the function of the vitellus in the vertebrate egg? How are these eggs classified according to the amount of vitellus within them?
608.
What is the cell division process directly related to the embryonic growth?
609.
How are animals classified according to the germ layers present in their embryonic development?
610.
How does the embryo turn from gastrula into neurula? How is the neural tube formed? What is the embryonic origin of the nervous system in vertebrates?
611.
What is notochord? How is this structure formed?
612.
What is coelom? To which structures do coeloms give birth? Are all animals coelomate?
613.
What is the germ layer from which the coeloms originate?
614.
What are pleura, pericardium, and peritoneum?
615.
After the neurula stage and from its ventral portion to the dorsal how can the morphology of the embryo be described?
616.
What are somites?
617.
What are histogenesis and organogenesis?
618.
From which germ layer do the epidermis and the nervous system originate? What are other organs and tissues made from that germ layer?
619.
From which germ layer do blood cells originate? What are other organs and tissues made from that germ layer?
620.
From which germ layer do the liver and the pancreas originate? What are other organs and tissues made from that germ layer?
621.
What are twins? Genetically what are the two types of twins that can be generated?
622.
What is polyembryony?
623.
What are extra embryonic membranes?
624.
What are the extra embryonic membranes present in vertebrates?
625.
Are the extra embryonic membranes the same in all vertebrates?
626.
How is the yolk sac formed? What is the function of the yolk sac?
627.
Which is the extra embryonic membrane whose function is to store nitrogen wastes of the embryo? Is this function present in placental mammalian embryos?
628.
Why can the allantois be considered an adaptation to terrestrial life?
629.
What is the difference between amnion and chorion?
630.
Why can the amnion also be considered an adaptation to terrestrial life?
631.
What is the chorioallantois membrane present in the embryonic development of reptiles and birds? How does this membrane participate in the energetic metabolism of the embryo?
632.
In which type of animals does the placenta exist? What is its main function?
633.
What are the main substances transferred from the mother to the fetus through the placenta and from the fetus to the mother?
634.
Is there exchange of cells between the mother and the fetus through the placenta?
635.
What are the endocrine functions of the placenta?
636.
What is the function of the umbilical cord?
637.
Which inflammatory bowel disease will manifest with deep fissures and fistulas?
638.
When does the serum lipase begin to rise in patients with acute pancreatitis?
639.
In liver disease, what causes spider telangiectasias and palmar erythema?
640.
What is an encapsulated collection of pancreatic fluid with no epithelial cell lining?
641.
Which disorder is characterized by epigastric pain radiating to either quadrant or to the back, epigastric tenderness, nausea and vomiting, diminished bowel sounds secondary to adynamic ileus, fever, and dehydration/shock?
642.
Which disorder is characterized by abnormal liver function tests, a TIBC of 61% and an increased ferritin level?
643.
What is the remnant of omphalomesenteric duct which connects the yolk sac to primitive midgut in the embryo?
644.
Which small bowel obstruction can occur when a large gallstone erodes through the gall bladder and into the duodenum?
645.
What are four abdominal radiographic findings of
diverticulitis?
646.
Is it true that morphine is contraindicated in the treatment of acute pancreatitis because of sphincter of Oddi spasm?
647.
Is some bleeding normal when starting Hormone Replacement Therapy?
648.
What are fibroids?
649.
Should I continue to have a pelvic exam each year if I have had a Hysterectomy?
650.
Can an ovarian cyst be normal?
651.
If I am no longer having my monthly period because of menopause, when should I be worried about new onset vaginal bleeding?
652.
Is there a screening test for ovarian cancer?
653.
Is irregular bleeding common when starting a new birth control pill?
654.
Is it possible to have a polyp in the uterus?
655.
What should I do if I miss a birth control pill?
656.
Is there an ovarian tumor with hair and teeth?
657.
35 year old woman is thought to have a vesico-vaginal fistula. What are the main causes of vesico-vaginal fistulas?
658.
What are the side-effects of magnesium sulphate therapy?
659.
A 14year old woman attends with her mother because she has not started menstruating. Outline your initial assessment?
660.
How is called the small opening of the uterus that sperm would first enter?
661.
In scanning report of my wife at gender column it is written as III, What is the meaning?
662.
35 year second gravida with single umbilical artery and ctev (club foot)?
663.
34 year old woman is found to have a monochorionic twin pregnancy at 12 weeks gestation in her first pregnancy. She requests information on the antenatal risks to her and her fetuses and their management. How would you counsel her?
664.
How would you assess and treat a 52year old woman who complains of heavy prolonged menstrual bleeding?
665.
A 35 year old woman has been listed for hysteroscopy. What are the indications for hysteroscopy in a woman of this age?
666.
What are the role of MR?
667.
Why doctor prescribe antibiotics for viral infection instead of antiviral drugs?
668.
Explain difference between sonication and homozinization?
669.
Which type of data need to file ANDA submission in USA ?
670.
WHAT IS FORCED DEGRADATION STUDY?
HOW TO PERFORM FORCED DEGRADATION ON TABLET SAMPLE OR SUSPENSIONS?
671.
Why 3X samples collected in process validation?
672.
Why potasium is high? when we done the test by edta sample?
673.
If an enteric coated tablet is taken with milk,will it disintegrate in stomach or still it will manage to pass into the intestine and disintegrate in inherent alkaline environment of intestine?
674.
What is mean by stability study?
675.
Why do we choose hplc Or Gas chromatography for a sample analysis?
676.
What are your educational qualifications? How many years of experience do you have in healthcare fields?
677.
What would your core competencies be, when it comes to NHS Jobs?
678.
Have you ever been through an emergency situation? What position did you handle during the emergency situation?
679.
Do you consider yourself to be social? Can you tell us of a time when you used your social skills to help the patients?
680.
Could you tell us of a time when you used your leadership skills to handle a situation?
681.
What is the best aspect that you like about your job?
682.
We have set out one this page a wide range of questions, List of Medicine Interview Questions and Answers.
683.
KNOWLEDGE OF THE MEDICAL SCHOOL Interview Questions
684.
Which is the following is the most appropriate during the orientation phase?
685.
The nurse shows a patient advocate role when?
686.
As a manager, the nurse should?
687.
As a care provider, the nurse should do first?
688.
A Diabetic patient was amputated following an unexpected necrosis on the right leg, he sustained and undergone BKA. He then underwent therapy on how to use his new prosthetic leg. What level of prevention is this?
689.
A female client undergoes yearly mammography. What level of prevention is this?
690.
60 years old post CVA (cardio vascular accident) patient is taking TPA for his disease. What level of prevention is this?
691.
Preparing the client for the termination phase begins?
692.
A helping relationship is a process characterized by-
693.
During the nurse patient interaction, the nurse assesses the ff: to determine the patients coping strategy:
694.
As a counselor, a nurse should perform which of the ff task-
695.
A 16-year-old child is hospitalized, according to Erik Eriksson, what is an appropriate intervention?
696.
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is characterized by-
697.
Which of the following drugs needs a WBC level checked regularly?
698.
Angelo, an 18 year old out of school youth was caught shoplifting in a department store. He has history of being quarrelsome and involving physical fight with his friends. He has been out of jail for the past two years.

Initially, the nurse identifies which of the ff: Nursing diagnosis:
699.
Which of the ff: is not a characteristic of PD?
700.
The most effective treatment modality for persons if anti social PD is
701.
Which of the following is not an example of alteration of perception?
702.
The type of anxiety that leads to personality disorganization is:
703.
A client is admitted to the hospital. Twelve hours later the nurse observes hand tremors, hyperexicitability, tachycardia, diaphoresis, and hypertension. The nurse suspects alcohol withdrawal. The nurse should ask the client:
704.
Client with a history of schizophrenia has been admitted for suicidal ideation. The client states "God is telling me to kill myself right now." The nurses best response is:
705.
In assessing a clients suicide potential, which statement by the client would give the nurse the highest cause for concern?
706.
A client with paranoid schizophrenia has persecutory delusions and auditory hallucinations and is extremely agitated. He has been given a PRN dose of Thorazine IM. Which of the following would indicate to the nurse that the medication is having the desired effect?
707.
A client who was wandering aimlessly around the streets acting inappropriately and appeared disheveled and admitted to a psychiatric unit and is experiencing auditory and visual hallucinations. The nurse would develop a plan of care based on:
708.
A decision is made to discharge a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder. Of the following abilities the client has demonstrated, the one that probably most influenced the decision not to hospitalize him is his ability to:
709.
A client is admitted to the inpatient psychiatric unit. He is unshaven, has body odor, and has spots on his shirt and pants. He moves slowly, gazes at the floor, and has a flat affect. The nurses highest priority in assessing the client on admission would be to ask him:
710.
The nurse should know that the normal therapeutic level of lithium is
711.
If a Patient complaints about vomiting, diarrhea, and restlessness after taking lithane, then the nurses initial intervention is:
712.
The client is taking Tofranil. The nurse should closely monitor the patient:
713.
A client was hospitalized with major depression with suicidal ideation for 1 week. He is taking venlafaxine (Effexor), 75 mg three times a day, and is planning to return to work. The nurse asks the client if he is experiencing thoughts of self-harm. The client responds, "I hardly think about it anymore and wouldn't do anything to hurt myself." The nurse judges:
714.
The client is taking sertraline (Zoloft), 50 mg q AM. The nurse includes which of the following in the teaching plan about Zoloft.
715.
After 3 days of taking haloperidol, the client shows an inability to sit still, is restless and fidgety, and paces around the unit. Of the following extrapyramidal adverse reactions, the client is showing signs:
716.
When caring for a client receiving haloperidol (Haldol), the nurse would assess for which of the following-
717.
A client is brought to the hospitals emergency room by a friend, who states, "I guess he had some bad junk (heroin) today." In assessing the client, the nurse would likely find which of the following symptoms-
718.
The client has been taking the monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) phenelzine (Nardil), 10 mg bid. The physician orders a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), paroxetine (Paxil), 20 mg given every morning. The nurse:
719.
Which of the following client a statement about clozapine (Clozaril) indicates that the client needs additional teaching?
720.
A client has been taking lithium carbonate (Lithane) for hyperactivity, as prescribed by his physician. While the client is taking this drug, the nurse should ensure that he has an adequate intake of-
721.
The client has been taking clomipramine (Anafranil) for his obsessive-compulsive disorder. He tells the nurse, "I am not really better, and I have been taking the medication faithfully for the past 3 days just like it says on this prescription bottle." Which of the following actions would the nurse do first?
722.
The nurse judges correctly that a client is experiencing an adverse effect from amitriptyline hydrochloride (Elavil) when the client demonstrates:
723.
Which of the following health status assessments must be completed before the client starts taking imipramine (Tofranil)?
724.
A client comes to the outpatient mental health clinic 2 days after being discharged from the hospital. The client was given a 1-week supply of clozapine (Clozaril). The nurse reviews information about clozapine with the client. Which client statement indicates an accurate understanding of the nurses teaching about this medication?
725.
The client is taking risperidone (Risperdal) to treat the positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. Which of the following negative symptoms will improve?
726.
The nurse would teach which food to avoid, if the client taking tranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate), because of its high tyramine content?
727.
Which of the following clinical manifestations would alert the nurse to lithium toxicity?
728.
The client with depression has been hospitalized for 3 days on the psychiatric unit. This is the second hospitalization during the past year. The physician orders a different drug, tranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate), when the client does not respond positively to a tricyclic antidepressant. Which of the following reactions should the client is cautioned about if her diet includes foods containing tryaminetyramine?
729.
After the nurse has taught the client who is being discharged on lithium (Eskalith) about the drug, which of the following client statements would indicate that the teaching has been successful.
730.
A nurse is caring for a client with Parkinsons disease who has been taking carbidopa/levodopa (Sinemet) for a year. Which of the following adverse reactions will the nurse monitor the client?
731.
A client is taking fluoxetine hydrochloride (Prozac) for treatment of depression. The client asks the nurse when the maximum therapeutic response occurs. The nurses best response is that the maximum therapeutic response for fluoxetine hydrochloride may occur in the:
732.
Are tablet excipients, binders or fillers good or bad?
733.
What do tablet binders and fillers do?
734.
What are tablet excipients?
735.
Why are tablet excipients necessary?
736.
Are capsules better than tablets?
737.
What is stearic acid and from what is it derived?
738.
Why is stearic acid used in tablet manufacturing?
739.
Does stearic acid interfere with the absorption of vitamins and minerals?
740.
What does bioavailability mean?
741.
Why do some supplements cost more than others that look like they contain the same ingredients?
742.
Is it OK to take vitamins after their expiration date?
743.
How long do vitamins last?
744.
Why do vitamin supplements have expiration dates?
745.
What are slow or time released tablets?
746.
When should I stop taking the vitamins recommended by my healthcare provider?
747.
Should I take the vitamins in the morning or at night?
748.
How are herbs different from drugs?
749.
Can I hurt myself by overdosing on vitamins?
750.
Are herbs safe to take with prescription drugs?
751.
Why would herbs be supplied in combination blends?
752.
What makes urine change color when I take a multivitamin?
753.
Can I still take vitamins if I have a cold or flu?
754.
Can I still take vitamins if I am involved with a detoxification program?
755.
Should I take extra antioxidants if I am working out?
756.
Will I destroy any of the properties in a tablet if I crush it?
757.
What if I find a tablet in my stool?
758.
When should a child take vitamins?
759.
Should an infant take Acidophilus? I have heard they should only take Bifidus?
760.
What vitamins, minerals or herbs might be recommended for anxiety?
761.
I have heard calcium can interfere with prescription drugs?
762.
I have heard that human strains of probiotics are the best. Is that true?
763.
What are colloidal minerals?
764.
What is myo-inositol, and how does it differ from regular inositol?
765.
What is MSM?
766.
What is the glycemic index?
767.
What makes amino acid chelated minerals better than other types of minerals?
768.
What does porcine mean?
769.
Where is the best source of bovine raw glandulars?
770.
What is BSE and how can I prevent exposure to it?
771.
The following are true about cerebrospinal fluid:
772.
True statement about the facial nerve includes:
773.
The optic chiasm:
774.
The cells of the retinal pigment epithelium:
775.
With regard to the lacrimal drainage system:
776.
The following are true about lacrimal gland:
777.
The globe:
778.
The vitreous:
779.
The cornea:
780.
The nasociliary nerve supplies:
781.
The ciliary ganglion:
782.
The inferior rectus muscle:
783.
In the eyelids:
784.
The parotid gland:
785.
In the head and neck:
786.
In the development of the eye:
787.
The following structures are of ectodermal origin:
788.
The hyaloid artery:
789.
With respect to lens development:
790.
The following structures arise from the first pharyngeal arch:
791.
Glucagon:
792.
Vergence movement:
793.
During accommodation for near:
794.
In binocular vision:
795.
The following are true about entopic phenomenon:
796.
The retinal-pigment epithelium cells are
797.
The intraocular pressure can fluctuate:
798.
The tear film:
799.
The human lens:
800.
True statement about dark adaptation includes:
801.
During phototransduction:
802.
With regard to the blood retina barrier:
803.
True statements about the aqueous humour:
804.
True statements about ERG include:
805.
True statements about EOG include:
806.
Stretch reflex:
807.
Glycocylated haemoglobin:
808.
With regard to the autonomic nervous system:
809.
The following are true about blood coagulation:
810.
In the inner ear
811.
Regarding interferon:
812.
Gram-negative rods that are known to cause ocular diseases include:
813.
The following are true:
814.
Endotoxins:
815.
The following virus is associated with human cancer:
816.
Following an acute inflammation, the following may occur:
817.
Acetazolamide causes the following:
818.
The effects of topically applied anticholinesterase on the eye include:
819.
Impaired accommodation occurs with
820.
True statements about chloroquine include:
821.
At the adrenergic synapse, the concentration of adrenaline in synaptic cleft:
822.
True statements about the nucleic acid include:
823.
In allergic reaction:
824.
With regard to immunoglobulin A:
825.
The following are true about the viruses:
826.
Recognized virulence factors in bacteria include:
827.
The following enzymes on the left are responsible for the synthesis of the neurotransmitters on the right:
828.
The following are true about the DNA in mitochondria:
829.
True statements about chromosome include:
830.
The following are true (Ophthalmology):
831.
How do you think you would get a Physician to switch to your drug?
832.
How would you like your ideal sales manager to be - to get the best out of you?
833.
If given a territory and a list of physicians to call on, how would you go about it?
834.
What is the most challenging aspect of a pharmaceutical representative?
835.
How do you perceive a pharmaceutical representatives typical workday?
836.
How do you think the company would help you the best?
837.
What is your interaction level with your previous supervisor? What did he do right and what did he do wrong, according to you?
838.
How do you perceive a typical day for pharmaceutical sales representative?
839.
What is the most challenging aspect of being a pharmaceutical sales person?
840.
I am 40-something years old. Am I too old to land a job as a pharmaceutical sales representative?
841.
I think I want to be a pharmaceutical sales representative, but how can I know for sure?
842.
Is a scientific degree required for entry into pharmaceutical sales? What about prior sales experience?
843.
How long should I expect my job search to last?
844.
I am willing to relocate for the right pharmaceutical sales job. Will this help me in my job search?
845.
Will a DWI hurt my chances of being hired as a pharmaceutical rep?
846.
I have bad credit, will this hurt my chances?
847.
How necessary is it to have a 4-year degree?
848.
Will an MBA or other advanced degree improve my chances of being hired as a pharmaceutical sales rep?
849.
What are the pros and cons of working with a recruiter?
850.
How do I shop for a professional resume writer?
851.
How important is the resume in landing a pharmaceutical sales job?
852.
What are the essentials that should appear on my resume?
853.
What about a cover letter?
854.
What is the best way to land a job in pharmaceutical sales?
855.
Why do the drug companies give so many interviews? Why does it take so long from the first interview until an offer is made?
856.
What is a typical day for a pharmaceutical sales representative?
857.
If I am hired, what kind of training can I expect?
858.
Do Reps really make large bonuses?
How many products does a rep carry; how do you get paid bonus on them?
859.
What are some of the things that you do not like about being a pharmaceutical sales representative?
860.
What is the hardest thing about being a pharmaceutical sales representative?
861.
If I am hired, and I have poor sales, will I be fired?
862.
I am lucky enough to have more than one job offer. How do I decide?
863.
When the economy does a downturn, what is the job market like for pharmaceutical sales reps?
864.
How many sales calls are you required to make each day?
865.
What is a contract sales company?
866.
Should I accept a contract sales position if my real goal is to work directly for a drug company?
867.
What is a Job-Fair? How useful are they?
868.
I have tried to network, by collecting business cards of current pharmaceutical sales representatives, but none of the doctors or pharmacists in my town will give me any. What do I do next?
869.
I have been on several interviews but received no offers. What could I be doing wrong?
870.
What is a ride-along?
What is proper etiquette for a ride-along?
871.
What should I bring to an interview?
872.
What are the pros and cons of working at a small pharmaceutical company versus one of the biggies?
873.
I am in college. What can I do to enhance my odds of being hired as a pharmaceutical rep?
874.
Explain Do you know how the dose for children is being estimated based on preclinical data?
875.
Explain All of the following agents are beta receptor agonists EXCEPT:
Epinephrine
Isoproterenol
Methoxamine
Dobutamine?
876.
Explain Which of the following barbiturates is an ultra-short-acting drug?

Secobarbital
Amobarbital
Thiopental
Phenobarbital?
877.
Explain DOC for cisplatin induced vomitting:

metaclopramide
domperidone
ondansetron
prochlorperazine?
878.
Explain Ciprofloxacin act by

Inhibiting protein synthesis
Inhibiting DNA function
Inhibiting cell wall synthesis
Inhibiting glycolysis?
879.
Indicate the irreversible alfa receptor antagonist:

Tolazoline
Labetalol
Prazosin
Phenoxybenzamine
880.
MOA of moricizine:

prolongs APD
shortens APD
no change in APD
calcium channel blecker
881.
Explain which of the following antitubercular drug contraindicated in pragnancy.

INH
ethambutol
rifampicin
streptomycin
882.
Explain Hypnotic drugs are used to treat:

Psychosis
Sleep disorders
Narcolepsy
Parkinsonian disorders
883.
Indicate a beta receptor antagonist, which has very long duration of action:

Metoprolol
Propranolol
Nadolol
Pindolol
884.
Explain Which of the following is not used in
enterococcal infection?

Vancomycin
Linezolide
Teichoplanin
Cephalexin
885.
Explain Oral contraception failure can occur with A/E:

ampicillin
phenytoin
rifampicin
mebendazole
886.
Explain Which of the following benzodiazepines is used mainly for hypnosis?

Clonozepam
Lorazepam
Flurazepam
Midazolam
887.
Explain Which of the following is an
antifungal


Flucytosin
Cytosine arabinoside
5 fluourasil
Procarbazine
888.
Explain the hypnotic drugs induce:

Increase the duration of REM sleep
Decrease the duration of REM sleep
Do not alter the duration of REM sleep
Increase the duration of slow wave sleep
889.
Explain indirect-acting adrenoreceptor blocking drug:

Tolazoline
Reserpine
Carvedilol
Prazosin
890.
Explain Flumazenil blocks the actions of:

Phenobarbital
Morphine
Zolpidem
Ethanol
891.
Explain Which of the following hypnotic agents is absorbed slowly?

Phenobarbital
Flurazepam
Triazolam
Temazepam
892.
Explain with an example of haemopoietic growth factor is

platelet derived growth factor
epidermal growth factor
iron dextran
erythropoietin
893.
Explain Dose of acetaminophen in children

5-10mg/kg/day
5-10mg/kg/dose
10-15mg/kg/day
10-15mg/kg/dose
894.
Explain Which type of immunoglobulin level will increase when an individual is exposed to a parasite?
895.
Explain what are the role of MR?
896.
ONLINE TRAINING IN ORACLE CLINICAL 4.6 (Clinical Data Management) and SAS -SDTM mapping?
897.
DEFINITION OF STABILITY INDICATING METHOD?
898.
Explain difference b/w sonication and homozinization?
899.
What is the major definition and difference between uniformity of content and content uniformity as official test for all tablets?
900.
What is the definition of Pka?
901.
What is eCTD? Difference between CTD & eCTD? How it will be prepared? Need of any Software?
902.
What will be in case stability sample Which have batch but distribute in three country. In tath case< we can put the sample for all country, whenevr all have same temp(Zone)?
903.
What the procedure followed in pharmacokinetic study of drug in plasma?
904.
What is streptococcus and what is the best drug for it?
905.
What is the Ph of blood?
906.
In Dry powder inhalation Andersen casacde impacor for FPF performing in that we adjusting 60LPM/MIN and time 4second, why? Explain?
907.
Explain muscles and their functions in the human body?
908.
What is cp rehabilitation?
909.
What are the examples of isometric exercises?
910.
How to get full range of movement for PA shoulder with full restricted movement?
911.
How does the respiratory system in man work?
912.
Why do we need to breathe?
913.
How do you breathe?
914.
So, it all starts at the nose?
915.
What do these sacs do?
916.
How does this exchange work?
917.
But what happens to the carbon dioxide?
918.
What is The Nostril?
919.
What is Pharynx?
920.
What is The Larynx and Vocal Cords?
921.
What is Trachea?
922.
What is Bronchi?
923.
What is Lungs?
924.
What is Write a short note on the human skin. Describe its functions?
925.
The most important functions of the skin are?
926.
Describe the functions of joints and human skeleton?
927.
Explain Ball and socket joint?
928.
Explain Gliding joint?
929.
Describe a human skeleton?
930.
Explain What results can I expect from this cosmetic surgery?
931.
How do we select a surgeon?
932.
The client is taking Tofranil. The nurse should closely monitor the patient:
a. Hypertension
b. Hypothermia
c. Increase Intra Ocular Pressure
d. Increase Intra Cranial Pressure
933.
The nurse should know that the normal therapeutic level of lithium is
A. .6 to 1.2 meq/L
B. 6 to 12 meq/L
C. .6 to .12 cc/ml
D. .6 to .12 cc3/L
934.
Reoperation rates have been 20% for the past 15-20 years in breast augmentation. Is this still currently true?
935.
What is a Cataract?
936.
Explain What Are Intraocular Lens Implants (IOL)?
937.
Should I spay or neuter my pet?
938.
How old should my pet be before spaying or neutering is performed?
939.
If I spay or neuter my pet will his or her behavior change?
940.
How big will my dog get?
941.
How do I know when my animal is in pain?
942.
When do I start vaccinating my pet and which vaccines are needed?
943.
How do I know when my pet has a problem serious enough to justify bringing him to see the doctor?
944.
Is there any medication I can give to make my pet feel better without bringing him in for an examination?
945.
How much should I feed my pet?
946.
When can I walk my puppy in the park?
947.
Is there a cheap place to take my pet (for health care)?
948.
How can I tell if my pet is in heat and how long will it last?
949.
How old do puppies and kittens have to be before taking them away from their mom?
950.
Will my pet miss her baby?